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larmor frequence - DAVID FORTIN MENKE - 08-26-2015 06:06 AM

Hi everybody !

Can you explain me this:
if wo = gamma.Bo and if wo = 2(pi)fo why fo = (only) gamma.Bo too ???? i don't understand why it isn't: fo = gamma.Bo/2(pi) ?

Thanks for any answer.


RE: larmor frequence - aelster - 08-30-2015 11:06 PM

(08-26-2015 06:06 AM)DAVID FORTIN MENKE Wrote:  Hi everybody !

Can you explain me this:
if wo = gamma.Bo and if wo = 2(pi)fo why fo = (only) gamma.Bo too ???? i don't understand why it isn't: fo = gamma.Bo/2(pi) ?

Thanks for any answer.

The gyromagnetic ratio (gamma) can be defined in terms of either angular frequencies with units (radians/Tesla) or "regular" frequencies where it has units of MHz/Tesla. I have chosen the latter. The two differ by a factor of 2 pi.

See the following link if you are still confused.
http://mriquestions.com/angular-frequency-omega.html

A Elster


RE: larmor frequence - DAVID FORTIN MENKE - 08-31-2015 03:01 PM

thanks. now it's ok. Have a nice day !