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Why is there a "bump" in the molecular tumbling rate v T2 relaxation positive?
i.e. if T1 in T2 means that enhanced longitudinal recovery (T1) results in loss of transverse magnetization (T2) ...then when T1 was at a minimum (larmor frequency) wouldnt that "enhanced T1 recovery" have resulted in a "dip" in T2 (greater loss of transverse mag) rather than a bump upwards?

I hope my question makes sense and someone can easily answer. Thank you!

Dear kwest123,
You are right. The original figure contained an error. The caption was correct that there is a "dip" on the T2 curve, but the figure contained a "bump", not a "dip". The T2 curve should go down, not up, at the resonance frequency. I have made the correction and replaced the original figure with the corrected version below. Thank you for pointing this out!
Allen Elster
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